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Re:Caste discrimination in some of Silicon Valley's richest ... by BoorishBears on Saturday October 31, 2020 @01:43PM (#24953527)
If all the lower castes do it and all the people from higher castes keep the signifying surnames, what does that change?
Re:Caste discrimination in some of Silicon Valley's richest ... by jolmg on Saturday October 31, 2020 @02:15PM (#24953832)
> and all the people from higher castes keep the signifying surnames

But that's not what was said. YetAnotherNick said many of all castes are doing this.

Re:Caste discrimination in some of Silicon Valley's richest ... by BoorishBears on Monday November 02, 2020 @02:34PM (#24972120)
That's literally the point... now people from all castes are doing it, so it changes something.

The comment I replied to implies "why didn't the lower castes just always change their surnames", I pointed out why.

Re:Caste discrimination in some of Silicon Valley's richest ... by jolmg on Monday November 02, 2020 @04:33PM (#24973682)
> The comment I replied to implies "why didn't the lower castes just always change their surnames"

Not implied. I was outright asking.

> I pointed out why.

By adding a non-existent condition that doesn't follow and using it as a reason.

That's unless you're saying that if the remaining lower-caste also used these neutral names, that would cause the upper-caste that had chosen to also adopt these neutral names to return to using the upper-caste names.

What's wrong with having these neutral names be used by many of the upper-caste (as they apparently are) and also all of the lower-caste? Am I not making sense? Because that's the scenario I was asking about.