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Re:I Violated a Code of Conduct by pron on Thursday October 29, 2020 @05:48AM (#24928742)
You realise conference organisers can do the very same thing without a code of conduct, right? That a code of conduct can be used as an "oppression tool" doesn't mean that its absence doesn't lead to even more "oppression". If you want to compare the relative merit of two things, like having a code or not, you need to consider both sides rather than just point out the perceived downsides of one.
Re:I Violated a Code of Conduct by ricardobeat on Thursday October 29, 2020 @07:13AM (#24929244)
I'm curious how you think they would achieve the same without a Code of Conduct, the acquired public support and the pseudo-court-system that comes with it.

Would you accept (or would one even send) an ad-hoc post-conference invite to 'talk about something you did wrong and how you should be punished' from a committee member?

Re:I Violated a Code of Conduct by pron on Thursday October 29, 2020 @09:43AM (#24930355)
Exertion of power does not require a pseudo-court-system and it can be exerted in the furtherance of fairness just as much as in its hindrance (people are also punished because there's no enforcement of some behaviour). Again, to discuss whether something is worth doing or not, you have to consider all the upsides and all the downsides of doing it as well as those of not doing it.
Re:I Violated a Code of Conduct by bananaface on Thursday October 29, 2020 @08:25AM (#24929725)
If they do it without, they have to own the decision. The CoC provides plausible deniability that it was personal.
Re:I Violated a Code of Conduct by pron on Thursday October 29, 2020 @03:09PM (#24934324)
It also makes it less likely to actually be personal. I don't think anyone claims that due process is always free of bias and error, but that doesn't make it more likely to be more biased.