Where in the Constitution does it state that its language should be read as exclusive of non-US persons unless explicitly stated otherwise?
The framers were not stupid. They knew what they were writing. If they had meant "citizen", they knew how to write it.
Show me documentary evidence or legal precedent from the time demonstrating that intent on the part of the framers, or else you're just projecting.
After all, apparently everyone was wrong about what "well regulated militia" actually meant until 2008. So it must not all be as crystal clear and elementary as you claim.
It would be absurd for the US government to claim that Assange is bound by US law, and can therefore be charged under US statutes, but that the Constitution does not apply to him.