This is not double taxation.
https://www.investopedia.com/terms/d/double_taxation.asp
The federal government charges you x% for its services. The state government charges you y% for its services. The city government charges you z% for its services. The county government charges you a% of some arbitrary "assessed" property value. These are different entities who have the power to tax you.
>Why can the federal government tax money that can only possibly be in my pocket if I've committed tax fraud against my state?
What? This would only be the case if total taxes on your income exceed 100%. And typically, that would then be up to the courts to decide who is the senior creditor that deserves to get paid.
>Now, I have to pay the federal government. Why should I be on the hook to pay taxes on 100K in income, when I truly only earned 95K?
I disagree that you truly earned $95k. You earned $100k.
In theory, it could be problematic if all of your taxes add up to >100% of income, but I think that's more incentive for people to participate in their government and make sure that doesn't happen. But I don't see why a state that mismanages their defined benefit pensions and infrastructure, and hence has high taxes due to shifting costs from 30 years ago to today, should be getting a benefit for it.
> Double taxation is a tax principle referring to income taxes paid twice on the same source of income.
and later
> Double taxation also occurs in international trade or investment when the same income is taxed in two different countries.
This state/federal dichotomy for the purpose of taxation is really no different than two countries taxing the same source of income.
Two entities are taxing the same income, and both must be paid. This is double taxation by the definition of the source you brought into the discussion!
> What? This would only be the case if total taxes on your income exceed 100%. And typically, that would then be up to the courts to decide who is the senior creditor that deserves to get paid.
No, it's true regardless of how much I've paid to my state. The 5K is gone. I don't have it. It's deducted from my paycheck. It never hits my bank account. I'm being asked to pay taxes on money I've used to pay taxes.
> I disagree that you truly earned $95k. You earned $100k.
You're probably right that earned was an imprecise phrasing for this. Received, perhaps? Regardless, the point still stands.
And to be clear I'm arguing from the standpoint of what I believe the principles ought to be, not of what the law is. As you state, when asking for money that I truly don't have due to contradicting demands on my income, courts would decide who receives what. I'm just arguing that the law ought to define that hierarchy, and any money already used to pay taxes ought not be taxed again by the secondary payee.
No, those are user fees.
> We don't deduct prices of other goods & services (food, clothing, rent, transportation) from our salaries before paying taxes on them, do we?
Yes, we do, with a choice to take a simplified default amount.
But with SALT, I think the better argument is that the absence of the deductions (or limitations on them, which work the same way at some point) causes federal taxation to artificially incentivize low-tax state policy since it can switch policies from net expected positive to net expected negative value before to after consideration of federal taxation, whereas with SALT deeuctibility federal income taxation does not have any effect on the direction, only the magnitude, of expected value of state tax and spending policy.
Pre-tax benefits for transportation are also not universal, and the State governments can deduct Federal taxes in their calculations if they want to follow that model.
With a deduction for state tax, it's a lot more cut and dried "hey I don't have this money anymore because the state whose laws you officially sanction by virtue of their being part of your union is going to throw me in jail if I don't pay them".
I'm not sure if that's more or less cut and dried than "hey I don't have this money anymore because I had to pay money to not be literally homeless".
Deductions are an approach to reducing tax burden, but ultimately we have to decide if more taxes or less taxes are the way to operate our societies. The federalized tax system allows different states to experiment with different approaches, and these kinds of deductions incentivize behavior in one direction.
Should someone living in a luxury penthouse suite at 15K+ a month get to deduct his rent at 100%, as well as closet-sized studio apartment? If not, where is the line drawn?
This is what I mean when I talk about value-based judgements based on variable rates.
Should I be able to deduct only what is literally the cheapest rent in my city? What if the cheapest apartment is full, and there's no way I could possibly get that rate? Should it be the cheapest AVAILABLE rate? Would this then impact prices knowing that the lowest rate drives tax-deductibility for all citizens?
This is the labyrinthine decision tree that opens up when deducting things like rent, food, clothing, etc.
Also, if SALT deductions truly incentivized punitive state taxes, why are so many states still charging 0% tax rates?
Edit: it's not really on the income taxed, it's on the money already spent to pay a seperate income tax.
A county (or city) pays for things, and they decide to setup a property tax, taxing some arbitrary "assessed" value of your property. It doesn't mean anything to me to say your same income is being taxed twice, thrice, or 4 times. You're just paying for services to n different organizations, in this case, government agencies.
If the taxes are too high, then they simply need to be lowered. But not via deductions or any other game. Let the true prices be easily visible. No one forces a state government to implement a % of income tax, and if it's too high, then voters in that state should demand the the percentage be reduced, or implement a flat amount. Same for federal, same for city.
Because states and cities provide services that federal government doesn't have to, so it benefits the federal government as well. If federal government would provide these services there wouldn't be need for SALT or local government taxes.
Anyway without SALT this is basically stealing from citizens. It's taxing money that citizens never see instead of taxing the money that they actually receive.
Say my tax rate is 10%. 10 = 5+5. Is that second 5% taxing money I never see?
My health insurance premium is deducted from my paycheck. Is that money I'm taxed on but never see?
I also get some employer paid health insurance. Is that unfair that I'm NOT taxes on that despite it helping me?
What if my rate is 51% + 51% = 102%? (Unrealistic, yes, but gets to the heart of the "fairness" argument)
How am I suppposed to pay 102% of my income? Is that sustainable?
But if my state taxes me 51% of 100k, and there is SALT deduction, my federal taxable base is 49K instead of 100K, and I am now actually paying 24.9K instead of an impossible 102K.
Taxes are NOT service payments, they are a legal obligation, a good portion of which (rightly) pays for things you may not directly benefit from. It's in a completely different category than for-service healthcare, at least in my opinion.
Its amount is not also directly tied to how much money you make. If you know your income you could theoretically budget for such expenses.
Also, I believe healthcare premiums are in some (most?) cases tax-deductible, though this is somewhat besides the point.
Overall I believe the wealthy are not taxed enough, but I think that even though SALT deductions benefit the wealthy, a taxable base should still be calculated rationally and fairly. It's more of a principle-based than result-based argument.
Other OECD countries are able to fund more progressive spending by (counterintuitively) taxing more regressively via broad-tax-base middle class taxes and VAT.
In contrast, taxing the middle class raises more money, which allows the government to spend more progressively.
High federal brackets make sense.
Edit: after looking it up, I'm wrong, you can deduct most state and local taxes such as property, income, and sales, although you can only pick either income or sales so it does incentivize states to only use one.
It still encourages wasteful tax spending though as my comment below explains.
SALT is not a tax credit (you won't get $5,000 back), it is a deduction which means the $5,000 is not taxed, because it was already used to pay a tax.
As a hypothetical, imagine 1 state which has very low taxes, say 5k on 100k income and does not provide very many services requiring the citizens to use post income tax money on all the goods and services they require such as rent, food, and healthcare. Now imagine another state which has super high taxes, say 40k on 100k of income, but the state massively subsidies their rent, food, gives them completely free healthcare and such.
Why should the person in the high tax state get to deduct the state and local taxes used to pay for similar services as the low tax one who has to pay for it with post federal income tax money?
To put it in more economic terms, SALT deductions incentivize state and local governments to increase taxes and spending to the point that the marginal utility of $1 provided by the government to citizens to equal the marginal cost of citizens taxes which include the SALT deductions or (1 / (1 - citizens marginal federal income tax rate)).
That literally creates waste because it incentivizes states and local governments to increase taxes to the point where citizens are seeing equal benefits with overall tax burdens at the cost of reducing the federal governments budget which ironically then encourages them to increase taxes to make up for it which then lowers the denominator in the states marginal utility to overall tax burden calculation in a positive feedback loop.
They are complementing the federal government so it doesn't have to provide these services.
If federal government would take care of everything and this was some extra service then I would agree with you, but it isn't.
And citizens in high tax states with high benefits that only benefit the local population get to reduce their federal tax burden with SALT deductions that others in the country don't benefit from.
Apparently I have to get more hypothetical, imagine 49 states introduce a 100% income tax but with that tax revenue, they give free rent, free food, free healthcare, free netflix, the works. With unlimited SALT deductions all of their income would go to the state governments and the 1 last state would be covering basically the entire federal budget (they get some from other things like corporate taxes).
Obviously totally unrealistic but the point is that increases in state and local taxes with SALT deductions benefit the state and local population at the expense of the federal governments tax revenue.
You overestimate how difficult this would be for the vast majority of people.
> imagine 49 states introduce a 100% income tax...
So your solution is to ask the citizens of states with 100% tax rates to pay > 100% of their income in taxes? How would this work?
Why can the federal government tax money that can only possibly be in my pocket if I've committed tax fraud against my state?
If I make 100K and my state takes 5%, I now only have 95K. There's no option for me not to pay 5K to my state.
(and no, for most people uprooting yourself for tax purposes isn't a tenable option)
Now, I have to pay the federal government. Why should I be on the hook to pay taxes on 100K in income, when I truly only earned 95K?
With sales tax, you could theoretically not buy things subject to sales tax. With real estate tax, you could in theory just rent.
Yes, in practice it's not like taxes are so punitive that > 100% of my income will be demanded, but it seems unfair to levy such taxes.
This assumes, of course, that the state has the first dibs on a person's income. I'd be just as happy if the federal government amended the constitution saying that all states levying income tax must deduct federal taxes paid from taxable income amounts.