Whether that crime was a felony, I don't know.
But I believe the "felons can't possess firearms" also includes possession while committing a felony - you don't need an actual conviction (but the felony would need to be proved).
Certainly if he was previously convicted he can't legally poses a firearm.
However I believe that possession of a firearm while operating a drug distribution business is also illegal.
The article seems ambiguous on which it is.
There's also a discussion to be had about your and the legal definition of a "gun." For example, antique firearms such as some black powder rifles are specifically excepted [1] from the Federal legislation, but it could vary on a state by state basis.
[0] https://www.justice.gov/archives/jm/criminal-resource-manual...
Can someone explain this part to me. Was he previously convicted of a crime that precluded ownership? Or are the police able to take legal behaviour and change it to illegal behaviour later on?