Generally, in a democracy, more voting is, at least publicly, considered better (in private, of course, some party officials might disagree, but the backlash if they tried to _do_ anything about it would be unthinkable).
I actually wonder to what extent this is a function of how democracy developed in the US vs everywhere. At least in the popular mythology, voting went from available to all male members of the ethnic majority, to all members of the ethnic majority, to everyone (this isn't actually quite true; a number of southern states had property qualifications for whites pre-civil war). Whereas a more common pattern of development elsewhere was the vote for practically no-one -> the vote for a very few (property qualifications) -> the vote for all men -> the vote for everyone. Most people in Europe will need to look back no more than a few generations to see where _their_ family wasn't able to vote, which may cause people to be more defensive of the institution.
There's also the example of history; most of Europe's 20th century totalitarian regimes screwed with voting early in their development.
Would voting in Germany be so non-political under the same circumstances? Obviously, voting shouldn't be political. We should pick voting rules without discriminating based on race, naturalization status, etc. That's the ideal we should strive to achieve. My point is different: human nature being what it is, it's worth asking whether anyone is really doing better under similar circumstances. And if they are doing things better, what are they doing that we could be copying?