I think then ultimately there could be no way to not have a zero sum allocation of finite resources between two parties.

Could you please elaborate on that thought. Because I haven't understood this idea entirely i think. It has always been, maybe because of chemistry, or because of equations, or because of the idea of equivalent exchange, that if it is a finite resource, then the allocation between to independent parties is zero sum. Unless they collaborate together, in which case, it's still zero sum, but rather of a dynamic nature where the possession of the finite resource sways between the two parties over time and no one is in actual abundance of the resource.

I will really appreciate if you could provide more insight on your understanding.