Do you have a source for the claim that these mental disorders or syndromes occur due to genetic mutations in almost all cases?

Also, you seem to be saying that even in the cases where a person is left with a bad brain (due to genetic bad luck), their I/mind is still perfectly capable of a rational analysis of their emotional states (here you seem to agree with GP) and can thus act reasonably despite a broken brain. But why wouldn't a bad brain almost necessarily result in a mind that is not capable of such analysis, or on acting on the result of such an analysis?