Edit: I'm surprised that elondaits's explanation isn't at the top of my thread. It makes clear that "exchanging your data as payment for 'free' services" is the target of GDPR and seems to me that's the only sensible explanation. Is someone willing to refute their explanation?

In this case, however, I was using it as an example of setting a price you don't expect to be paid... you want everyone to pay with their data, but you are required by law to offer an alternative payment form... so you set the price for the alternative to so high no one pays it.