They're completely separate cases with different courts, rules, judges, and penalties. Neither has jurisdiction over the other. Having "the courts insist that the civil proceeding is resolved first" is not a choice for either of them to make. This firewall between criminal and civil isn't a "bug", it's a fundamental part of the justice system.

What is a "future possible criminal case"? Why would there be another criminal case? And if there was, what does this court have to do with it?

You're still presuming she's guilty because there's no grounds for interfering with an innocent person's finances that may affect their ability to defend themselves in court or acting on a case based on the assumed outcome of a different one.