I think you have misinterpreted the parent comment. I'm pretty sure they're saying "if all these translations unanimously agreed that's what the original Hebrew said, then that really is what it said", but you seem to have interpreted it as "look at how many translations are wrong!".

Is that right, or did I misunderstand you? If that is what you're saying, do you have a reason to disagree with all of those translations? Can you offer your own for that passage?