Re:It’s not just p=0.048 vs. p=0.052
by mehrdadn on Wednesday September 11, 2019 @07:56AM
(#20938995)
I think that's what he's saying too, but what is that supposed to show? Is he arguing against some claim that every interval of 1 standard deviation is equally significant? Did anybody make this claim? So far as I know, nobody considers (say) a 6-sigma effect to be 6 times stronger than a 1-sigma effect...
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I don’t get it either. It’s a trivial consequence of having a threshold: if we say two cities are “far” when they are at least 1000 miles away then Washington D.C. is not far from Jacksonville while Boston is far from Jacksonville, even though Boston is not far from Washington.
Re:It’s not just p=0.048 vs. p=0.052
by nerdponx on Wednesday September 11, 2019 @03:35PM
(#20943830)
That's not quite the problem.
Let's assume you've already decided in advance what "far" means.
Without moving either city from its current location, the same experiment can give you "very far" and "very close" in identical replications.
I’m commenting on pfortuny’s (correct) interpretation “those events are only separated be 1.1std deviations, which is little” of the original post by Gelman (the difference between a significant result and a non-significant result may not be significant = a city which is far from Jacksonville and a city which is not far from Jacksonville may not be far from each other).