Re:It’s not just p=0.048 vs. p=0.052
by mehrdadn on Wednesday September 11, 2019 @07:43AM
(#20938905)
I still don't get it. What p-value observations would not be "reasonable" here? It seems to me he's saying that anything between 0 and 1 is completely reasonable, which is a completely pointless statement as I see it.
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Re:It’s not just p=0.048 vs. p=0.052
by lonelappde on Wednesday September 11, 2019 @08:56AM
(#20939556)
His point is that the whole point of the field of statistics is that cherry picking results or getting lucky once is not proof of anything, unlike nonstatistical mathematics where one example is enough to justify a claim.