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Re:It’s not just p=0.048 vs. p=0.052 by JustFinishedBSG on Wednesday September 11, 2019 @07:43AM (#20938899)
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Re:It’s not just p=0.048 vs. p=0.052 by mehrdadn on Wednesday September 11, 2019 @07:46AM (#20938924)
> It means that if the null hypothesis were true, you expect your p-values to be a random variable contained inside a nice bell shaped normal. 0.005 is dead center so it's very likely but O.2 which seems very unprobable is actually only 1std further, it's well inside the bell curve.

I'm completely lost here. How is 0.005 "dead center"? Are you assuming p = 0 is the center? Are there negative p-values I'm not seeing that somehow balance the positive ones?

How can a random variable that's strictly between 0 and 1 even follow a bell curve?

Re:It’s not just p=0.048 vs. p=0.052 by firebacon on Wednesday September 11, 2019 @08:03AM (#20939048)
Check out these links [0] [1] or google for "p value distribution" or "p curve"

[0] http://www-ist.massey.ac.nz/dstirlin/CAST/CAST/HtestPValue/t...

[1] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/P-value#Distribution

Re:It’s not just p=0.048 vs. p=0.052 by mehrdadn on Wednesday September 11, 2019 @08:14AM (#20939148)
I'm not following those links either. How is p uniformly distributed under H0? If you assume H0 then obtaining a p-value near 0 is going to be damn impossible. Whereas obtaining one similarly close to 0.5 is going to be ridiculously more likely.

Am I severely lacking sleep and going crazy or something? Maybe I should check back in like half a day to see what people have said, I feel like I must be completely confused right now because literally nothing I've read so far makes sense to me.

Re:It’s not just p=0.048 vs. p=0.052 by dash2 on Wednesday September 11, 2019 @08:47AM (#20939459)
They're right. If the null hypothesis is true, then the probability of getting any p value is equal. Put it another way, the p value is the probability of getting the observed data (or more extreme) under the null. So, under the null, 10% of the time you will get data with a p value of 10% or less; 20% of the time, you will get data with a p value of 20% or less; and so on. And that's the uniform distribution!

Here's an R example to play with:

  pvals <- replicate(10000, {
    x <- rnorm(100)
    y <- rnorm(100)
    t.test(x, y)$p.value
  })
  plot(density(pvals))

That will plot you a nice uniform line on [0, 1].

(NB: I have no idea why OP talked about p values following a normal distribution. That doesn't make sense to me, and I think the post has been deleted.)

Re:It’s not just p=0.048 vs. p=0.052 by mehrdadn on Wednesday September 11, 2019 @03:46PM (#20943908)
So I don't have (or know) R, but I do have access to Mathematica, and this is most definitely not giving me a uniform distribution (how could it?!):

  << HypothesisTesting`
  With[{n = 10000000, dist = NormalDistribution[]},
   Histogram[Last[NormalPValue[RandomVariate[dist, n] - RandomVariate[dist, n]]], 500]]
Why is your x variable though? If H0 is true shouldn't your x be fixed?

I think if you remove the subtraction though then you do get a uniform distribution -- in which case I see what the claim is, yeah. Wasn't really clear to me earlier but indeed, getting p = 5% means you have a 5% chance of getting observations that extreme, so I guess it is uniformly distributed!

Re:It’s not just p=0.048 vs. p=0.052 by dash2 on Friday September 20, 2019 @04:59AM (#21024580)
You'd get the same result whether you test the hypothesis y > x (with both random variables) or y > 0. Under the null, the p-value is uniform on [0, 1], whatever that null is. It follows from the definition of a p value.

(Disclaimer: I am not a real statistician....)

Re:It’s not just p=0.048 vs. p=0.052 by kgwgk on Wednesday September 11, 2019 @02:18PM (#20943105)
> How is p uniformly distributed under H0?

That's the very definition of a p-value! The mapping of data to p-values is chosen to have a uniform distribution of p-values when the data is distributed according to the null hypothesis. That's the property that makes p-values interesting.

Re:It’s not just p=0.048 vs. p=0.052 by kmm on Wednesday September 11, 2019 @07:56AM (#20938992)
At least for continuous statistics, the p-value is uniformly distributed when the null hypothesis is true.
Re:It’s not just p=0.048 vs. p=0.052 by mruts on Wednesday September 11, 2019 @08:31AM (#20939322)
I don’t think you understand what a p-value is. The p-value is a percentage output of testing whether a given normal distribution actually has a non-zero mean. It is phrased in terms of the null hypothesis. So a P < 0.05 means that there is less than a 5% chance that the null hypothesis is true. Conversely, this means that there is a 95% chance that what you’re testing is true.
Re:It’s not just p=0.048 vs. p=0.052 by firebacon on Wednesday September 11, 2019 @08:44AM (#20939439)
> So a P < 0.05 means that there is less than a 5% chance that the null hypothesis is true. Conversely, this means that there is a 95% chance that what you’re testing is true.

See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/P-value#Basic%20concepts

Re:It’s not just p=0.048 vs. p=0.052 by sweeneyrod on Wednesday September 11, 2019 @09:05AM (#20939656)
You don't understand what a p-value is.

> a P < 0.05 means that there is less than a 5% chance that the null hypothesis is true.

In other words, P(H0 | X) where H0 is the null hypothesis being true and X is the data observed. But that is not what a p-value is, they actually represent P(X | H0).

Re:It’s not just p=0.048 vs. p=0.052 by lonelappde on Wednesday September 11, 2019 @09:01AM (#20939602)
mruts' (and most people who studied a little statistics) misunderstanding of the basic definition is exactly what author and others have been campaigning against for years.