ID doesn't provide verification that it didn't happen, it provides a difficulty bar for doing it.
Verification that it didn't happen, insofar as that is possible, is provided statistically through the absence of signficant patterns of attempted double votes, which you'd expect to see if there was any substantial pattern of voter fraud (especially by more than one party; barely plausibly, a single party with a sufficiently good likely voter model could be problematic to detect.)
It's still unclear how voter ID would improve this. Yes, the people at the polling place can check your face against the ID. But if the results are already in and you suspect fraud, what extra information does the ID give you?
This is not a circular discussion to me, because it's clear where to start. The claim is that voter fraud is a problem, so that's where the burden of proof lies. We don't start with an assumption and then ask people to disprove it.
> Also if we did enact ID checks, and zero fraud happened (perhaps because it preemptively prevented it all), how is that not a good outcome? Considering it went from non-zero to zero, yes that would be an improvement.
A reduction from 0.000002% to 0% is basically meaningless. In order for it to be a good outcome, you need to measure it accurately and show a causal relationship, and also not damage the election in some other way such as significantly depressing turnout.
> If the right to bear arms is not infringed by background checks, then it follows that the right to vote is not infringed by ID checks. Do you disagree with this statement?
We curtail people's Constitutional rights all the time when we think the benefits to society outweigh the consequences. Child pornography and obscenity laws infringe our right to free speech, gun control laws infringe our right to keep and bear arms, felony disenfranchisement infringes our right to vote, exigent circumstances infringe our right to be secure against unreasonable searches. I simply disagree that it's in our collective best interest to infringe on voting rights in this way, given the rarity of voter fraud.
As for the claim, I believe the issue is that without the above checks, there's no possible way to know if that fraud is being committed in the first place, especially with at least 40% of the population abstaining. You're saying the measurement shows that it's rare while I'm asking how the measurement is even possible for this type of fraud. Is that the fundamental disagreement we have? If so then I guess this thread has run its course, but I do wish there was a way to agree.
Also if we did enact ID checks, and zero fraud happened (perhaps because it preemptively prevented it all), how is that not a good outcome? Considering it went from non-zero to zero, yes that would be an improvement. What would be the loophole that introduces more voter fraud because of IDs? Can you please give me an example of this?
The comparison to other services and rights is critical to show bias and present a rational framework to tackle the problem. If the right to bear arms is not infringed by background checks, then it follows that the right to vote is not infringed by ID checks. Do you disagree with this statement?