($1 * 1.5) * .6 = $.90
What if you get a tails then a heads?
($1 * .6) * 1.5 = $.90
Doesn't seem like such a great game now, does it?
The Kelly Criterion sets a limit for how much of your total wealth you should bet when the odds favor you. If you bet more than that limit you increase your odds of losing everything without improving your expected return.
So imagine a better game where you could bet any amount, and you still got paid $5 for every $4 you risked and had a 50% chance of winning. The correct amount to bet is 10% of your bankroll. If you bet more than that in the long run you will go broke.
50% of ($1.25 + $.90) for a $1 bet seems like a great game to play.
2.25 * .36 = .36 * 2.25 = .81
You started with $1 and now have 81 cents. I recently learned that a lot of early computer-era academic finance actually made the same error of averaging returns, as described in Finding Alpha:
http://falkenblog.blogspot.com/2016/08/finding-alpha-pdf.htm...
You would need around 26% more heads than tails just break even (0.6*(1.5^1.26)=1). But even if you were lucky at first, you will always "regress toward the means" in terms of head to tails ratio if you kept playing.
The optimal bet is not the same as the critical bet separating the positive growth and negative growth regions.
set.seed(123)
# simulating multiplicative growth
n <- 1e4
init_wealth <- 1
x <- sample(c(0.6, 1.5), n, replace=TRUE)
init_wealth * prod(x)
# analytic model
n1 <- length(x[x==0.6])/n
n2 <- length(x[x==1.5])/n
rate <- (0.6^n1) * (1.5^n2)
init_wealth * (rate^n)
(Edit: formatting, and wording for clarity)
By binomial theorem, the expectation at time t is ((1.5 + 0.6)^n)/2^n) = 1.05^n so the "annualized" return per unit time is 1.05, exactly the same as the expectation.
What is "time average growth rate"? Web search turns up lots of references do it by Peters, but no definitions.