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A comment on The word “lox” hasn't changed in sound or meaning in 8k years. Parent comment

Re:The word “lox” hasn't changed in sound or meaning in 8k y... by umanwizard on Tuesday May 14, 2019 @11:31PM (#19916176)
Actually the presence of non-Anglo-Saxon vocabulary in English is not because of English “stealing” anything, but because England was colonized and ruled by non-English-speaking people for centuries.

I.e. saying English stole from French is a bit like saying Hindi, Irish, or Navajo stole from English. Gets the power relations completely backwards.

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Re:The word “lox” hasn't changed in sound or meaning in 8k y... by empath75 on Wednesday May 15, 2019 @07:12AM (#19918250)
That applies to basically French and Norse loan words from the Middle English period. It doesn’t apply to the large number of Latin and Greek loanwords or anything more recent.
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Re:The word “lox” hasn't changed in sound or meaning in 8k y... by umanwizard on Wednesday May 15, 2019 @11:16AM (#19920228)
Well, Latin was the lingua franca in Europe for a very, very long time. So it's a bit like how languages all over the world now have English loanwords. Still not because of English "stealing" anything.

You could make a case for the validity of this quip for more recent loanwords, but there are relatively few of those compared to French, Norse, and Latin.

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