Re:The IRS Tried to Take on the Ultrawealthy – It Didn’t Go ...
by conistonwater on Friday April 05, 2019 @05:55PM
(#19587408)
> If it was clearly rulebreaking, they would have called it a "violation," I assume.
No, they would have called it a violation if it was found to be illegal in court, or in a settlement. Since that didn't happen, it would be wrong to call it a violation (for essentially technical reasons). I think you're at the very least missing that there is a category of things that are "illegal but not prosecutable". I also don't think your U2 example helps, because I still don't see what it has to do with the issue in the article.
No, they would have called it a violation if it was found to be illegal in court, or in a settlement. Since that didn't happen, it would be wrong to call it a violation (for essentially technical reasons). I think you're at the very least missing that there is a category of things that are "illegal but not prosecutable". I also don't think your U2 example helps, because I still don't see what it has to do with the issue in the article.