It's not about what I would say, it's about how a dominant undertaking is defined under EU law. Which isn't just "ah that makes sense" as it's basis. There are legal statutes and court precedent that must be argued to prove the definition of the relevant market, and then to prove that Apple is a dominant undertaking within said market. None of this has to do with my feelings about Apple or how "fair" they are being. I have zero knowledge of EU case law, so it's hard for me to make a definitive, sourced argument here to answer your question. I just don't think it's such an open and shut case of market definition NOR Apple's dominance.

No. I would say that that company is more profitable.

Is Porsche more dominant than Toyota?