Re:US citizens will need a visa to visit Europe starting in ...
by ameister14 on Saturday March 09, 2019 @11:20AM
(#19346809)
No, that is not why. It's because the US has two policies, domestic and international, and the application of treaties on domestic law is up to the federal government to execute. If the Congress chooses not to do so, there isn't a domestic law broken and so the states aren't bound.
So actually, if they had separate sovereignty, the states would have to sign the treaties themselves and would potentially be more bound to them, not less.
Re:US citizens will need a visa to visit Europe starting in ...
by masonic on Sunday March 10, 2019 @04:35AM
(#19351011)
No, the United States formally withdrew from the Optional Protocol to the Convention concerning the Compulsory Settlement of Disputes 14 years ago. The cases alluded to in the parent comment (Sanchez-Llamas v. Oregon, Medellin v. Texas) came after the US withdrawal from the Optional Protocol.
And yet their separate sovereignty, allegedly restricted to “domestic” affairs, is why the US, through it's court system, allows US states to ignore US international commitments (notably, the Vienna Convention on Consular Relations) in their execution of their criminal law.