No it doesn't. Consumers can withdraw consent at any time, they have to give informed consent (i.e. the consent is void and null if the consumer can't reasonably be expected to understand what they consented to) and companies have to keep track of what data they acquired and what they have done with it.

The "consent" popups you see on loads of websites these days actually run counter to the GDPR because they usually opt-in by default or tie consent to uses for which that consent is not necessary. They also rarely provide detailed information about what data is used and what they do with it.

That is not even remotely true. GDPR expressly affords revoking consent—and deleting any information gathered—at any time.

No, it doesn't. In fact, the rules about what must or must not be deleted are more complicated than that and in some respects ambiguous, and as yet there is little useful guidance from regulators to clarify those ambiguities. This is a significant problem with the GDPR.

I can't edit my comment above any longer, but for the benefit of those who are downvoting:

The point is that there may be multiple lawful bases for collecting the same personal data and it may be used for multiple purposes. The fact that consent was one of those bases does not necessarily convey a right to erasure if others still apply after consent is withdrawn.

Moreover, given that one of the other lawful bases for processing is the infamous "legitimate interest" umbrella, which could cover almost anything or almost nothing depending on subjective interpretation, the whole situation is quite ambiguous.