I'll just leave this here.

https://rationalwiki.org/wiki/Extraordinary_claims_require_e...

There's scores of evidence and studies about this. Don't feel like looking all of them up.

https://www.webmd.com/mental-health/news/20080227/antidepres...

And yet there's https://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S014067361... from 2018 (a decade later) which concludes "All antidepressants were more efficacious than placebo in adults with major depressive disorder. Smaller differences between active drugs were found when placebo-controlled trials were included in the analysis, whereas there was more variability in efficacy and acceptability in head-to-head trials."

Along with commentaries like https://www.cambridge.org/core/journals/the-british-journal-... where the abstract is:

> Although antidepressant drugs are commonly effective, several meta-analyses of antidepressant drug trials undertaken decades after their introduction suggested that they were effectively acting as placebos. A recent meta-analysis concluded that they were effective. Both conclusions have been widely taken up by the media. This paper seeks to explain the disconnect.