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Re:Send Noncompete Agreements Back to the Middle Ages by vonmoltke on Thursday December 06, 2018 @09:40AM (#18618355)
I'm confused about the distinction. How can a worker be forced to join a union in the absence of an agreement between the company and the union to only hire union workers?

If you are thinking of "closed shops", companies where the union has a security agreement with the company and the union is free to deny membership to a person (thereby denying them employment), those were deemed illegal everywhere under US federal labor law.

Re:Send Noncompete Agreements Back to the Middle Ages by TheCoelacanth on Friday December 07, 2018 @02:11AM (#18625708)
> I'm confused about the distinction. How can a worker be forced to join a union in the absence of an agreement between the company and the union to only hire union workers?

A worker can't be forced to join a union even in the presence of such an agreement. The company simply agreed not to hire them if they don't join.

Re:Send Noncompete Agreements Back to the Middle Ages by vonmoltke on Friday December 07, 2018 @08:59AM (#18627648)
I feel like you are playing semantics here. "Forced to join a union" in this discussion is in the context of "in order to get a job at Company X". Of course this worker is free to forego employment at Company X if they don't like the terms of the employment. However, one of those terms forces the worker to join a particular union.

Taken to its logical conclusion, this semantic distinction could be used to justify eliminating just about any worker protection currently on the books.