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Re:Language affecting thought - the question arises again. by RiderOfGiraffes on Thursday October 21, 2010 @07:14AM (#1814978)
Clickable:

+ http://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=1812165

+ http://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=1813181

And my reply: http://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=1814970

Repeated here:

Many linguists claim that the Sapir-Whorf hypothesis (SWH) has been soundly disproved. They have bags of evidence to show that the usual, strong interpretation is false.

And yet every programmer with proficiency in several languages knows that some problems are easier solved in Python, others in C++, and others in AWK. Further, every polyglot I know will shift language according to nuances in the thoughts they're trying to express, because some languages have more/better/finer distinctions about different things.

In Spanish the words for "to wait" and "to hope" are the same. In some contexts the words for "Even" and "Same" are both translated into the Frech as "meme" (as in "meme chose" - "same thing"). Perhaps these conflations of words show a conflation of concept. Yes, the differences in concepts exist in the minds of the speakers, but the language to express them precisely isn't always there.

There's a Spanish joke: "¿Cómo se llama a un ascensor en Inglés?" - "Con su dedo." It doesn't translate into English - you need to read the Spanish. Again, vocabulary conflation.

SWH has been debated here on HN before, many times, and no doubt it will again, with the research-based linguists saying there's no difference in lanugage chosen, and the polyglots snorting derisively.

http://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=1505365

http://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=658951

http://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=218862

http://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=1595991

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