I'm aware of the distinction between wealthy and high-income (was a tax lawyer in a former life). I was objecting to the if-then in the prior post that said: if you're wealthy and don't have OI, then your dividend rate is 0. This is not true. It is only true for the first chunk of income, as you note.

Also, this is equally true for LTCG, so in the context of this discussion (qualified dividends versus buybacks, which increase LTCG), it doesn't move the needle one way or the other.