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Re:Why “children,” not “childs”? (2016) by andrewbinstock on Monday May 28, 2018 @09:27AM (#17172258)
Why not look it up before you assert someone is wrong? It's explained in detail in [0]. It's clear that visa is used as a past participle, not as a noun, and it's applied in the singular. There is no support anywhere for the use of visum as a singular and visa as a plural. Which is what I believe I said above.

[0] https://www.etymonline.com/word/visa

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