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A comment on Why “children,” not “childs”? (2016). Parent comment

Re:Why “children,” not “childs”? (2016) by linkmotif on Monday May 28, 2018 @12:28AM (#17170590)
Would have to guess the Norsemen being referred to here at the people who came in the 800s and 900s, not the Normans who came later
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Re:Why “children,” not “childs”? (2016) by lmoml on Monday May 28, 2018 @12:37AM (#17170619)
OP seemed to be referring to Normans. The whole cow (English) -> beef (French) is a classic linguistic example to cite with regard to them.
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Re:Why “children,” not “childs”? (2016) by oeuviz on Monday May 28, 2018 @04:12AM (#17171233)
How come the same situation is present in other languages(e.g. French, Serbocroatian)? Improbable that it were always the Normans.
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Re:Why “children,” not “childs”? (2016) by BerislavLopac on Monday May 28, 2018 @06:49AM (#17171731)
Which situation specifically? Serbo-Croatian doesn't have that differentiation between the name of the animal and of its meat. There are others (regional "astal" being my favourite example), but the similar pattern can happen in any language.
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Re:Why “children,” not “childs”? (2016) by linkmotif on Monday May 28, 2018 @10:00AM (#17172422)
Yes that makes more sense actually. But now I am still confused.
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