Re:Manufacturer 'make worthless' users devices after some st...
by dexen on Thursday May 17, 2018 @11:45AM
(#17092317)
A subsequent section on Wikipedia (link [1] in GP) tells us the following:
>All US states also have laws regarding receipt of stolen property; however, there usually is no minimum dollar amount in many jurisdictions, and, of course, the requirement in Federal law regarding interstate commerce does not apply.
i.e., USA-wide
>Also, in many states (Ohio, for example), the burden to prove criminal intent is not as stringent or is nonexistent.
i hereby rest my case.
Re:Manufacturer 'make worthless' users devices after some st...
by icebraining on Thursday May 17, 2018 @02:12PM
(#17093865)
Curiously, the references backing those statements are both dead :)
"A person can be found guilty of that offense only if all of the following facts are proven: The person received or concealed or stored or disposed of items of stolen property. The items were moving as, or constituted a part of, interstate commerce. The items had a value in excess of $5,000. The person acted knowingly and willfully."
So that doesn't really answer the question asked, because it's only a federal crime if the goods are known to be stolen and a part of "interstate commerce."
Now, at the state level, this may differ. But neither of us has that information.