My intent isn't malicious. I simply don't want to invest in more maintenance. Hence I'd block EU, yes.
Users of free services will just set their country to non-EU, and continue to consume the services. GDPR will gave achieved nothing in that case.
This stems from the United States making their laws apply globally.
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/United_States_v._Elcom_Ltd.?
My company has no presence in EU, and neither myself, nor any one of my employees are going there.
What's the risk?
that seems simple enough - I think I'll add that to the projects I'm working on.
There is so much info I read on this today I closed the article but it said that their ticked-box consent and IP is not sufficient.
You need to be able to show the user agreed and what they agreed to exactly. A screenshot might do that but might also not be sufficient (if there is more text elsewhere on the signup process related to privacy)
https://www.mailjet.com/gdpr/consent/
Scroll to: How do I store consent under GDPR?
The record of the IP address, location and time at which someone submitted a consent form is insufficient without a screen capture of the form itself.
You welcome!
A screen capture is the easiest way to achieve compliance but the regulation leaves open other methods as long as you can show that someone gave consent and to what exactly. (IMO you could also store the HTML of the webpage they viewed at the time)
The law says you have to be able to prove the user ticked the box and provide an audit trail for it, IIRC some recitals mentioning that you should be able to reproduce the exact agreements the user made (ie, either in text or as a screenshot) so that you can later show the user and any regulatory body that asks what they agreed on.
"Within" is a physical location, so arguing that IP block associated with request is a perfect proxy is at best a legal grey area. For example, an EU citizen could use a VPN to access your services and then send you a data request. See here for discussion: https://www.gdpr360.com/gdpr-ip-addresses-and-classification...
If this seems like a low risk incident, consider that there are litigious people inside the EU (as everywhere) that may actively explore the boundaries of the law.
Profiling data subjects in the EU is covered, regardless of where the processor/controller is located.
If you are processing personal data but not profiling and you are not established in the union it only applies if the processing is related to the offering of goods and services to data subjects in the Union.
For those who are not profiling, blocking EU IP addresses should help establish that they were not envisaging offering goods and services in the Union.
In fact, there are many ways someone might be profiling without knowing it. For example, precedent about when logging IP addresses constitutes PII is still evolving and seems to apply in cases that would be unintuitive to many US businesses: https://www.whitecase.com/people/tim-hickman. And there have been arguments that geolocating based on IP might itself be data enrichment that contributes to an argument that you are profiling!
Similarly, I haven't seen a clean interpretation of what constitutes offering (or clearly not offering) services to EU users, which determines application to a data processor. For example, if I offer a Portuguese translation of my site for Brazilian users, have I offered service to continental Portuguese?
IANAL but nobody knows exactly where GDPR will apply yet. I think the better takeaway for someone who is trying to respond with minimum effort is: IP blocking might help you build a defense, but it might matter how you implement it and it might not be sufficient.
Some legitimate experts have concluded that this wording allows someone in the EU using a vpn they reports them as coming from outside the EU to be covered.
That seems like a low risk incident to me, but I’m not a lawyer & I can see where that interpretation comes from.