No. They would have to prove the source is from "unlawful activity". But knowing the creativity of the DOJ, I am sure they could come up with something.

"Whoever, knowing that the property involved in a financial transaction represents the proceeds of some form of unlawful activity, conducts or attempts to conduct such a financial transaction which in fact involves the proceeds of specified unlawful activity—"

https://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/text/18/1956