> But didn't that all happen during the Industrial Revolution as well?

Arguably.

> Why is this any different?

Even if it wasn't, massive changes to politico-economic systems to redistribute gains were needed to mitigate the adverse distributional effects of the industrial revolution, so...

I'm sorry of I appeared adversarial, it was a genuine question. Why can we not make changes to the current politico-economic system if we were able to do it in the past?