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Re:How the Catalan government uses IPFS to sidestep Spain's ... by elecbit on Friday September 29, 2017 @07:23PM (#15370113)
I agree that "not voting is also democracy". However I cannot agree about not allowing to vote, which is the case. It's a political issue, which should be solved like it was in Scotland.

In the name of what, a group can decide over another on what is it allowed to do? Because of the frontiers made after conquering when using force?

Re:How the Catalan government uses IPFS to sidestep Spain's ... by pepon on Friday September 29, 2017 @07:45PM (#15370221)
"In the name of what, a group can decide over another on what is it allowed to do?"

Of course that a group can decide over another group which is a subset of the former. Otherwise, any city of any country, or any group of individuals, could decide to vote and set their own rules for whatever they want.

Re:How the Catalan government uses IPFS to sidestep Spain's ... by gpvos on Saturday September 30, 2017 @02:44AM (#15371602)
Pure rule of the majority is a perversion of democracy (this holds both on the Spanish and the Catalonian level). Taking minorities into account and giving them appropriate rights is just as integral a part of democracy.
Re:How the Catalan government uses IPFS to sidestep Spain's ... by elecbit on Saturday September 30, 2017 @05:29AM (#15372017)
"decide over another group which is a subset of the former" A subset of the former in the name of the frontiers set by a centralist monarch who won a war and forbid language and institutions in Catalonia in 1714. Check the law that supports my comment: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nueva_Planta_decrees

"Otherwise, any city of any country, or any group of individuals, could decide to vote and set their own rules for whatever they want." --> And do you think this is wrong? I think self-governance is the future. Not to go against anyone, but to decide more about everything. Not to put a paper in a ballot every 4 years.