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A comment on When all job differences are accounted for, the pay gap almost disappears. Parent comment

Re:When all job differences are accounted for, the pay gap a... by rhizome on Wednesday August 02, 2017 @06:32PM (#14915290)
If women were 25% cheaper than men while being as competent, wouldn't white/male capitalists trip over themselves to only hire women to increase their profits?

Invert this: what explains capitalists paying women 25% less for the same skills? Why aren't the salaries of men decreased in light of actual proof that the work can be done for less?

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Re:When all job differences are accounted for, the pay gap a... by OJFord on Wednesday August 02, 2017 @06:57PM (#14915430)
That's not an inversion, it's the same point: apparently it can't.
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Re:When all job differences are accounted for, the pay gap a... by rhizome on Wednesday August 02, 2017 @07:11PM (#14915515)
Either I don't understand or I disagree. GP's point was not that a true capitalist would reduce the overall compensation.
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Re:When all job differences are accounted for, the pay gap a... by OJFord on Thursday August 03, 2017 @04:59AM (#14918015)
The point GGP is making is that the difference does exist, but wouldn't if the same job was being done; therefore it is not.
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Re:When all job differences are accounted for, the pay gap a... by rhizome on Friday August 04, 2017 @12:51PM (#14929994)
Their point is that women wouldn't be getting paid 25% less if they actually were as good as the men, that they aren't doing "the same job?" That's the only interpretation I can think of that supports the explanation.
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