I think it was clear that I was paraphrasing to show a fallacy, not attempting to suggest the parent actually believed this.

Out of curiosity, if paraphrasing someone else's argument is so untactful, how come the paraphrased comment here: https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=13954036 is not the one downmodded?

People expressing mainstream views don't seem to be held to the same requirements of tactfullness.

Here's another example: https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=12695708

Here's one that was flagkilled and resurrected: https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=12498776