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A comment on Gödel and the limits of logic (2006). Parent comment

Re:Gödel and the limits of logic (2006) by acchow on Monday March 13, 2017 @08:20PM (#13863840) 

  1 -> 0 = 0
What does this mean? Is the 0 after the equals the antecedent? Consequent?
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Re:Gödel and the limits of logic (2006) by pmcjones on Monday March 13, 2017 @08:49PM (#13864002)
(1 -> 0) = 0.

In other words, (true implies false) is false.

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Re:Gödel and the limits of logic (2006) by acchow on Monday March 13, 2017 @09:37PM (#13864249)
"is false" doesn't mean anything in Godel's system. That's too high level and imprecise. We're dealing with only symbol manipulation here. We only have provability (which really is "there exists a derivation for") - we don't have "truth".
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