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Re:Why does e to pi i equal -1? (2015) [video] by ouid on Tuesday February 14, 2017 @07:04PM (#13648536)
step 1 isn't "not obvious"; it's nonsense. What, exactly, are you trying to prove exists? e^z? e^z is undefined at this point. If you're trying to prove that e^i\pi=-1, you need to start with a definition of e^z.

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