To be clear, I'm not claiming that the result of this referendum has to be carried out. I honestly don't know enough about British politics to say to what extent that's the case.

I'm saying that dismissing a popular vote on the basis of voter turnout doesn't make sense. E.g. only 66.4%[1] voted in the last UK general election. Would anyone argue that the entire government of the UK is illegitimate on that basis?

1. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/United_Kingdom_general_electio...