A recent high profile example of trespass law clashing with the first amendment would be free speech zones.
The Constitution constrains the construction and application of all laws. Every single one.
First amendment entanglements with trespass generally occur on public land where some local authority has prohibited some sort of activity involving speech. There usually aren't first amendment issues to be raised with trespass of private property, as rights are relevant with respect to government authority.
For individuals breaking constitutional laws, this is irrelevant.
In this case, the question is whether a charge of "rioting" or "trespassing" or whichever charge is currently in play withstands this scrutiny. Generally, application of these laws pass Constitutional muster. On occasion, they do not.
The salient question is whether this is a matter of restraint on speech or simply a matter of prosecuting her behavior independent of any related speech. There's a much longer discussion (or court case) to be had on this point.
But as to the question of whether you can invoke a constitutional right to justify breaking the law? Absolutely, no question about it. Yes.