Re:Massachusetts to tax ride-hailing apps, give the money to...
by Ericson2314 on Sunday August 21, 2016 @03:33AM
(#12329856)
How many famous intellectuals from before the 19th century came from the lower classes? That is what we will return to.
Re:Massachusetts to tax ride-hailing apps, give the money to...
by CydeWeys on Sunday August 21, 2016 @10:06AM
(#12330953)
Thank you. There are so many "could have beens" throughout history that didn't happen simply because the vast majority of the human populace was, until very recently, entirely excluded from being able to contribute towards human progress.
Re:Massachusetts to tax ride-hailing apps, give the money to...
by sokoloff on Sunday August 21, 2016 @07:38AM
(#12330520)
How many people who could have become great scientists, engineers, or inventors instead have to grind out an existence planting and farming grain or bussing tables in a diner or some other job?
It's not so much an issue for those people who came from poorer backgrounds and became scientists (though there's still a question of whether they could have been better scientists with better early educational support), but it's a bigger issue for those who never got that chance by an accident of birth.
I don't support equality of outcome as a desirable goal, but I do support equality of opportunity.
More to your point - I respond by asking whether or not the socioeconomic standing of a scientist matters for the societal impact of their work.
I don't see an easy conclusion here. The scientists driving innovation in industry are generally paid very well (this is relative, but we can probably agree they are paid higher than a median salary). The scientists driving innovation in academia are not, as a rule, paid as well as their counterparts in industry, but that doesn't stop them from contributing valuable research to their fields.
So how do we conclude that socioeconomic stance matters for a scientist's research impact, if they have grants or corporate sponsorship?
To reiterate my point - if reduced socioeconomic mobility can't be demonstrated to be a net loss for society, why does it matter if income inequality causes it or not, and how does it demonstrate income inequality as a net loss for society?