Re:Spanish authorities raid Google offices over tax
by defen on Thursday June 30, 2016 @12:23PM
(#12009612)
Is there a reason that tax couldn't be imposed on the buyer, collected by Google at time of "sale" (click through by customer on ad), and remitted to the government, regardless of buyer origin? In other words, if I live in Montana (no sales tax) and I pay Google to display ads in Spain, I don't see a good reason to not have to pay Spain's "sales tax" (or whatever we're calling it) on those ads. I don't see why it should matter where the ad buyer lives, or where the ad clicker lives. I'm paying an entity in Spain, therefore the entity in Spain is taxed (and that higher cost ultimately flows back to me, the buyer). Or am I not really paying the Spanish entity when I buy those ads?
Re:Spanish authorities raid Google offices over tax
by erichocean on Thursday June 30, 2016 @03:28PM
(#12011028)
> Or am I not really paying the Spanish entity when I buy those ads?
I'm pretty sure you pay the entity in the country that you are located in, so the Montana rancher is paying Google USA. Basically, you need a corporate presence in most places in order to _sell_ to people in those places. People in Spain pay Google Spain to place ads _as far as I understand it_—I'm not an expert on EU tax regulations.
Not if you have to bid against people in other jurisdictions for the same ad spaces. Then the people in the taxing jurisdiction have to bid the market price or lose the auction to someone in another place that doesn't impose the tax. In theory this could have a negative impact on ad prices, but it isn't going to be anything like the entire amount of the tax.