I'm not sure. But nationalisation is certainly a violation of rights.

Of course, I'd be interested to see how those assets were set up in the first place - my bet would be during a non-rights-respecting period of colonialism.

How far back do you go? (Serious question).

You go to when the country got a democratically elected government.

As for nationalisation is certainly a violation of rights do you hold that all eminent domain is a violation of rights? IE if the government wants to build a road and uses compulsory purchase orders it's a violation of rights?

Yes. It's possible to do such things in non rights violating ways. For example, buying options on properties and exercising them when a route is made.