The continuous sense does exist, but you have to deeply analyze historical events to ascertain distinguishing factors. You have to have analyzed numerous other countries to see how they play out with different polities, different cultures, different geopolitical imperatives. How the Soviets used law, how the Chinese use it. People find all kinds of ways to collect power. Other people oppose them.
Things are cultural and not just codified. You can't just look at a collection of facts and make the determination. Politics is messy. The concrete sense you're looking for doesn't exist. I've laid out a lot of rationale and historical context to lay out what the terrain of rule of law looks like, how it's threatened, protected, and codified; and analyzed four different countries in four different time periods.
This is a lay hobby of mine so I can't claim any kind of authority here. I could understand if you disagree with my findings. But neither of you have offered up any substantive analysis of your own or your own definition. Just isolated incidents in history with no surrounding context. I try to provide that context and it seems like I'm talking to a brick wall. You can't just cherry-pick events and expect that to be very insightful, all people do when they do that is reinforce their existing beliefs.
All of these things are connected, they all contribute to rule of law.
Have you yet provide a concrete explanation of how, exactly, the claim that England had rule of law before other nations (either in a binary sense, or in a continuous sense where England consistently over some significant period of time had a greater degree of "rule of law" than anyone else) is justified?
Because it doesn't seem like there is anything really concrete here.