I don't think under/over-representation is necessarily sexism; typical "correlation does not imply correlation". My point was that the first statement ("no sexism") was in direct contradiction to "Women Twice as Likely to be Hired Over Equally-Qualified Men". Of course, even that is not necessarily sexism; it could simply be that women are/expect to be paid less than equally-qualified/capable men, so it's a no-brainer to hire only women.