I understand that, but I guess I'm of the opinion that while we provide leeway to humans because of our nature, an automated system that drives below the speed limit in the case that it is blocking or restricting traffic be reducing the number of lanes flowing at full speed really has no excuse, other than purposefully slowing the normal flow to save money. I imagine that might be successfully litigated.

Could/would they drive well below the speed limit without legal problem when no traffic is around? I imagine they could, but I'm less interested in that (but understand my question was ambiguous).