defactoserfdom

I've always thought that we should be wary of correlation between two series that are positively correlated with time.

There seems to be a lot of confusion about why they would do this, the text books say it indicates that the company thinks its stock is undervalued and that the management have the best information on the company so they would know. In this case I think it is a cost of capital vs interest rate decision. tl:dr Interest rates are low