How? By your argument, this was already clearly illegal. What did the precedent change?
I feel like this is not a very complicated point I'm making, but I'm happy to keep expanding on it.
How do you see this as different from the claim that the judge(s) did a bad job?
If you think this ruling is just an obvious application of the law to the facts, then you'd get the same result in a different case.
Or, if you think the ruling is contingent on whether a judge approves of the conduct independently of the law, then the court is the party that screwed this up. In particular, the example you highlight, "the finding here was categorical", is completely at the judges' discretion.
(Or are you saying that this ruling is clearly correct, but you wish that the judges would have gotten confused?)